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“At 31 March 20X3, TC granted additional benefits to those currently receiving benefits that are due to vest over the next four years and which have a present value of $4 million at that date. They were not allowed for in the original actuarial assumptions.”
sir my text states that the above $4m expense for the company are past service costs, but i don’t understand how? to be considered as past service costs they at least need to relate to “employee service in past period”. the fact that they will be vested in future means conditions will will be fulfilled in future(like future employee service) which means its false to classify them as past service cost!
can you shed some light on this sir?
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