ShareImpairments - Impairment review - ACCA Financial Reporting (FR)YouTube videoLoad YouTube video13 CommentsSskansman·5y agoWhat's the difference between impairment of NCA and devaluation of NCA? treatment? Reply FFrancisco·5y agohttps://www.differencebetween.com/difference-between-revaluation-and-vs-impairment/ Reply Ccathyj66cjj·5y agoI have a technical question please on FR. On recognition of an Impairment, what happens to the accumulated depreciation when the asset is written down to the new carrying value? Thanks. Reply Mmunie·6y agoGood day May I please understand why in the computation of value in use we used 5000*3.791 and why did we not use the formula C(1+10%)^5 Thank you in advance for the answer Reply MMahgalathen·6y agoI believe we are discounting the future cash flows to present value for the VIU. Your formula is based on inflating the value. Reply Ssagarsingh·6y agoAfter using the given formula, I believe the answer still remains the same. They have directly given the annuity factor. Reply Jjaymzo·6y agoYour Value in use (5000*3.791)=18,955 Reply Cchichi2018·7y agowhat about the cost of capital at 10 % do we just ignore it ? Reply NNatalia·11d agoThe cost of capital of 10% and the number of years which is 5 is used on the annuity factor table to derive at 3.791. Reply Aajayf·7y agowhat about the cost of capital 10% Reply Aanamazingorange·7y ago18955, not 18995. at 9:48 Reply Zzeddjayy·8y agohow is the depreciation 5,000? Reply Eeustacia·8y ago25000 is dep for 5 years, 5000 is dep for 1 year. we take dep of only 1 year as the reporting period is of 1 year. Reply Leave a commentPost comment
On recognition of an Impairment, what happens to the accumulated depreciation when the asset is written down to the new carrying value?
Thanks.
May I please understand why in the computation of value in use we used 5000*3.791
and why did we not use the formula C(1+10%)^5
Thank you in advance for the answer