Skip to content

Ask the Tutor ACCA FM

BPP KIT MCQS

Ssaadi9y ago
Sir, can you plz explain mcq 108 from latest bpp kit i cant understand why the year 1 incremental cash flow is in negative .
John MoffatJohn MoffatTutor9y ago#1
At the start of the first year they need 100,000 working capital. Therefore there is an outflow of 100,000 at time 0. Because there is inflation of 10% and they want the amount of working capital to stay constant in real terms, they need there to be 100,000 + 10% = 110,000 at time 1. They already have 100,000 and so they need an outflow of another 10,000 at time 1 so as to have increased it to 110,000.
Ssaadi9y ago#2
sir, thank you for your reply and making it so easy to understand. In the yr 2 as our project has been finished that is the reason for getting an inflow of 110000,is my understanding correct.
John MoffatJohn MoffatTutor9y ago#3
Yes - that is correct :-)
Ssaadi9y ago#4
thank you so much sir.
John MoffatJohn MoffatTutor9y ago#5
You are welcome :-)
Sign into reply to this topic.