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Washi Sep 2018

Forums › Ask ACCA Tutor Forums › Ask the Tutor ACCA AFM Exams › Washi Sep 2018

  • This topic has 1 reply, 2 voices, and was last updated 6 years ago by John Moffat.
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  • Author
    Posts
  • September 3, 2019 at 3:29 pm #544513
    niko1703
    Member
    • Topics: 5
    • Replies: 5
    • ☆

    Hi again John!

    The question 1 (Washi) in September 2018 exam.
    Could you please explain where am i wrong in the following ?

    Situation – We are in Japan (JPY). We receive ARD and need to convert them into JPY for NPV calculation.

    1 step – We receive ARD and convert them into EUR – so we use the higher rate of 95.6 ARD/EUR (because we pay more ARD to bank for 1 EUR).

    2 step – We convert our EUR into JPY – here we use lower rate of 129.2 JPY/1 EUR because bank will give us less JPY for 1 EUR, leaving spread as its fee for conversion.

    3 step – Deriving our spot rate – From steps 1 and 2 above we can derive the spot rate we will use in our calculation of NPV:
    It is JPY/ARD (129.2/95.6) = 1.3515 or (reverse) ARD/JPY (95.6/129.2) = 0.74.

    But why examiner use 0.70 in the answer instead of 0.74? Where am i wrong?

    Nick

    September 4, 2019 at 12:00 pm #544686
    John Moffat
    Keymaster
    • Topics: 57
    • Replies: 54831
    • ☆☆☆☆☆

    I assume that you are referring to appendix 2

    As far as the receipts are concerned, they are selling ARD and the examiner should have used 0.74.
    As far as the payment at time 0 is concerned, they are buying ARD and therefore he is corrected to have used 0.70.

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