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WACC Confusion.

Forums › Ask ACCA Tutor Forums › Ask the Tutor ACCA FM Exams › WACC Confusion.

  • This topic has 4 replies, 2 voices, and was last updated 5 years ago by John Moffat.
Viewing 5 posts - 1 through 5 (of 5 total)
  • Author
    Posts
  • October 20, 2020 at 5:00 pm #590826
    arsaljafri
    Participant
    • Topics: 5
    • Replies: 2
    • ☆

    Following is the question:

    Ingham’s plc capital structure is as follows:
    50c ordinary shares = $12m
    8% $1 preference shares = $6m
    12.5% loan notes 20X6 = $8m

    The loan notes are redeemable at nominal value at 20X6. The current market prices of the company’s securities are as follows:

    50c ordinary shares = 250c
    8% $1 preference shares = 92c
    12.5% loan notes 20X6 = $100

    The company is paying corporation tax at rate of 30%. The cost of company’s ordinary equity capital has been estimated at 18% pa.

    What is the company’s weighted average cost of capital for capital investment appraisal purposes?

    (End of Question)

    Now I get it that the formula to solve this question is

    (Ve/Ve +Vd +Vp) x Ke +(Vp/Ve +Vd +Vp) x Kp + (Vd/Ve+Vd+Vp) x Kd(1-T)

    But still this formula is not giving me the right answer. I don’t know whether I’m putting the formula wrong or values.
    Can anyone tell me its solution with clear workings so that I can understand the answer to this question.

    I will be very thankful to the person who solves this for me. It’s correct answer is 16.29%

    Awaiting for response.

    Thanks.

    October 21, 2020 at 8:13 am #590928
    John Moffat
    Keymaster
    • Topics: 57
    • Replies: 54831
    • ☆☆☆☆☆

    The cost of equity = 18%, and the market value = 60M
    The cost of preference shares is 8.70% , and the market value = 5.52M
    The cost of debt is 8.75%, and the market value is 8M

    If you put those figures in your formula you will get the answer of 16.29%.

    I do suggest that you watch my free lectures on this. The lectures are a complete free course for Paper FM and cover everything needed to be able to pass the exam well.

    October 22, 2020 at 7:49 am #591060
    arsaljafri
    Participant
    • Topics: 5
    • Replies: 2
    • ☆

    Hello.

    So nice of you to respond to my query.

    I’m getting all my figures correctly except the market value of preference shares. Can you show me its working?

    And yes surely I will watch your lectures to strengthen my concepts.

    Thanks!

    October 22, 2020 at 7:58 am #591064
    arsaljafri
    Participant
    • Topics: 5
    • Replies: 2
    • ☆

    I did some workings on my own and got the figure of 5.52m by multiplying 6 x (100%-8%) = 5.52m
    But if we multiply 6 with market value of securities I.e 92c then the answer is 5.52m too.

    Which one is the correct method?

    October 22, 2020 at 8:43 am #591075
    John Moffat
    Keymaster
    • Topics: 57
    • Replies: 54831
    • ☆☆☆☆☆

    The nominal value is $6M and since the nominal value is $1 per share, there are 6M shares.

    The market value per share is $0.92, and therefore the total market value is 6M x 0.92 = $5.52M.

    Do watch the lectures – questions in the exam are going to be more complicated than this basic question 🙂

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