there is a question in bpp f7 text on cashflow statement. its a worked example. i have worked out everything but i cant understand where he gets his opening cash/cash equivalent figure
he has a figure of (97).
and while playing with numbers, the only thing i cd come up with is that he has taken the cash balance plus the bank OD.
----------------------------x2--------x1
short term invest-------50--------Nil
Cash-----------------------2 ------- 1
under current liabilities he has:
bank OD ----------------85---------98
so 98-1=97
i guess if we have OD, is that always deducted from cash in hand to get the final cash figures??
Ask the Tutor ACCA FR
Statement of Cashflows
Not necessarily always though I have to admit that I ALWAYS treat the overdraft as "Cash and cash equivalents"
I'm told that, in practice, it's sometimes treated as Financing but, as I just said, I ALWAYS treat it as C + CE
i will follow the leader in this case...:)
Not a bad decision ... but you may call me Sensei
even better ....
:-)
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