Xavier sells its head office, which cost $10 million, to Yorrick, a bank, for
$10 million on 1 January 20X2. Xavier has the option to repurchase the
property on 31 December 20X5, four years later, at $12 million. Xavier
will continue to use the property as normal throughout the period and so
is responsible for its maintenance and insurance. The head office was
valued at transfer on 1 January 20X2 at $18 million and is expected to
rise in value throughout the four-year period.
Giving reasons, show how Xavier should record the above during
the first year following transfer.
Now here my question is - why facing loss in the price is for Yorrick and if made profit with increase in price it for Xaviers.
Ask the Tutor ACCA FR
Sale and purchase
Xavier has an option to repurchase at $12 million and it is currently valued at $18 million, so if it is expected to rise in value then Xavier would definitely buy it back for the cheaper $12 million as it makes economic sense. Xavier would therefore continue to record the asset in its accounts and record a loan for the proceeds.
If prices fell and it ended up that we had an option to buy at $12 million but the price in five years was les than $12 million then we wouldn't buy something at a higher price than what it is worth on the market, so we would derecognise the asset and record the sale.
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