Reverse yield gap

Dear Sir, This is the definition of reverse yield gap.. "An excess of returns on gilt-edged securities above those on equities. This is likely to occur during periods of high inflation because equities are expected to provide capital gains to compensate for inflation while gilt-edged securities are not. During periods of stable prices the yield gap is usually positive: a greater yield on equities is needed to compensate investors for their relative riskiness" I didn't understand the high inflation part. It says equities are expected to provide capital gains where gilt edged securities are not. Doesn't this mean equity will have more return than gilt edged? (which is not the case in reverse yield gap) Please help me understand this clearly. Thank you in advance. Regards, Rajvir Singh Oberai.