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one question !

Forums › Ask ACCA Tutor Forums › Ask the Tutor ACCA AFM Exams › one question !

  • This topic has 1 reply, 2 voices, and was last updated 7 years ago by John Moffat.
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  • April 30, 2018 at 5:04 pm #449492
    foeldh123
    Participant
    • Topics: 168
    • Replies: 76
    • ☆☆☆

    In DEC 12, COEDEN CO, PART (A)

    1. In the calculation of cost of debt where the answer sheet have shown that it is 4.9%.
    If i’m not wrong, for the calculation of cost of debt, it is

    (risk free rate + credit spread ) ( 1 – T )

    However why 4.9 does not take into consideration of tax ????

    April 30, 2018 at 5:26 pm #449498
    John Moffat
    Keymaster
    • Topics: 57
    • Replies: 54728
    • ☆☆☆☆☆

    4.9% is used to calculate the market value of the debt. The market value is determined by the investors (the present value of future receipts discounted at their required return).

    Company tax is of no relevance – it is only relevant when calculating the cost of debt to the company.

    Please watch the Paper F9 lectures on the valuation of securities, because this is revision of Paper F9.

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