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Please refer to the question(as it would be long post if i put it here)
I don’t understand how the examiner calculate the payable after discount as it has not taken account of 0.5% of discount. But as practicing similar question Plot co 2013 i have seen him taking account of 1% discount in calculating after discount payable why ?? I am so confused….In future you must ask in the Ask the Tutor Forum if you want me to answer – this forum is for students to help each other.
As I explain in my free lectures, the examiner has not been consistent as to whether or not to take the discount into account. However he has made it clear that either approach would get full marks (especially since the amount involved will not affect the final conclusion).
I guess you have not watched the lectures. They are a complete free course for Paper FM and cover everything needed to be able to pass the exam well.
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