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katmai 12/09

Forums › Ask ACCA Tutor Forums › Ask the Tutor ACCA AFM Exams › katmai 12/09

  • This topic has 1 reply, 2 voices, and was last updated 10 years ago by John Moffat.
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  • Author
    Posts
  • May 5, 2015 at 10:45 am #244152
    student07
    Member
    • Topics: 193
    • Replies: 162
    • ☆☆☆

    Sir can u please explain me part b of this question.
    The solution in bpp is like
    Payments libor/2+0.6%
    Receipt under vanilla swap libor/2
    Payment on fixed element (5.4/2)=2.7%
    Net payment. 3.30%
    Effective annual int rate=(1+six month rate)square-1=1.033square -1=6.7%
    R they dividing by 2 everything because its 6 month i mean libor and basis point 120 as well please explain me but more. Thanks

    May 5, 2015 at 3:32 pm #244178
    John Moffat
    Keymaster
    • Topics: 57
    • Replies: 54833
    • ☆☆☆☆☆

    Yes – they have divided by 2 because it is for six-months.

    (However I would not worry too much about this question – it was set by the previous examiner and he did not last long! The current examiner took over in 2010, and his questions are much more important.)

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