An example was given by the tutor in chapter 2 about the above topic where he concluded that the tax saving was £1300 after property income had been split according to actual ownership of shares. My question is, "Why did he consider the difference in the taxable income of the wife as £4000 instead of the £3000 as in the previous illustration where the husband had a salary?
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Jointly owned assets of a married couple
I need help here
If you can tell me exactly which lecture you are concerned with and the specific part of that lecture you are referring to in terms of the timing within the lecture I will check it for you
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