Impairment Reversal

I am reversing an impaired asset. The cost is $1500 with 10 years useful life. The asset was impaired after 2 years to $800. Therefore impairment is $500. After year 3 the asset with a CA of $700 net deprecation, was revalued to $1350 (revaluation increase of $650 I will reverse the impairment to the ceiling had the asset not being impaired i.e. $1500 - 450 (3years depreciation) to $1050. What do I do with the "extra" $300? Would the treatment be different if the asset us carried at cost model instead of revaluation? Thank you. All the best in the exam everyone!