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december 2014 q 1

Forums › Ask ACCA Tutor Forums › Ask the Tutor ACCA PM Exams › december 2014 q 1

  • This topic has 1 reply, 2 voices, and was last updated 5 years ago by John Moffat.
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    Posts
  • February 26, 2020 at 3:43 pm #563226
    kennigara
    Participant
    • Topics: 193
    • Replies: 250
    • ☆☆☆

    Hi Dear Tutor, I have a question.

    Cum-div=ex-div+about to be paid=3.7107=3.10+0.6107
    then we deduct 0.21 from 3.7107 which is 5.50$

    here is 3.10$ is ex div and about to be paid is 3.10*0.197=0.6107

    about to be paid is future pay-0.6107

    has just paid is past pay-0.21

    my question here is that why we deduct past oay from cum-div to get current share price?it should be past share price not current smth seems to be confusing

    thanks in advance

    February 27, 2020 at 3:45 pm #563331
    John Moffat
    Keymaster
    • Topics: 57
    • Replies: 54655
    • ☆☆☆☆☆

    This question has nothing to do with cum div and ex div.

    See page 16 of our free lecture notes (and the lecture that goes with it) for an explanation fo the total shareholder return.

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