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december 2013 question 3 part b

KKanan7y ago
Dear Tutor, I calculated in the following way but it shows sth different calculation method Current position 60/365*456000=74959 New position 30/365*456000=37479 cost old payables-74959 new payable-37479 fall in payables=37480 reduction in finance cost 37480*0.05=1874 benefit 0.01*456000=4560 net benefit 2686 the answer shows 30/365*0.99*456000=37105 1 percent discount we normally apply to find discount based on purchase but if it does not say how many will use or take advantage of 1 percent discount then why we multiplied 0.99 ?could you explain? in other examples regardless of payable and receivable examples usually customers say for 45 percent will benefit from discount and the remining will take advantage of old method but here the exact percentage figure has not been showen. seems to be confusing.
John MoffatJohn MoffatTutor7y ago#1
If you watch my free lectures on this again, you will see that I make it clear that there are arguments for both taking 100% and for taking 99%, but that the examiner has made it clear that he always accepts either answer. (The answer will be slightly different depending which you do, but the difference is always small anyway.)
KKanan7y ago#2
So,the way i calculated is also correct? I watched it but probably missed that part.
John MoffatJohn MoffatTutor7y ago#3
Yes, it is also correct :-)
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