Hi, wear and tear allowance is 10% of rent received (after deduct the bad debt). Why does the answer say: it is beneficial to do 10% of accrued rent? That isn't right. What should I do in the exam? What does the examiner prefer? Many Thanks.
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BPP revision question 7
Actually it really doesn't matter. Technically it is based on rent received but the examiner will accept receivable too
Hope this helps
Hope this helps
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