hi, the working provided for the NCI in the answers of notes is wrong for example 3 in S24 pg - 171 , although the value is entered correctly. Just a heads up for correction.
O
OopsICreditedThat·
Hello! Say, there seems to be a bit of a muddle in the OpenTuition ACCA FR 23 Notes with regards to the above example. The non-controlling interest calculation appears a tad wonky. Might be a good idea to give those notes a proper look-see, save some poor blighters the headache of figuring it out without the video, eh?
M
MANIRAFASHA·
good notes
J
Jiarui·
Thanks for the video!
A question around this is, 20% of the sub's net assets at the reporting date has been attributed to NCI, and 80% of the sub's post acq profits have gone to the parent, then what about the remaining 80% of the sub's net assets at the acquisition date, where has it been accounted for?
I'm sure it must have been accounted somewhere as otherwise the balance sheet wouldn't be balanced, but just try to get my head around where it has been accounted for.
M
mub30·
Hello Sir
I have one doubt that is
Retained earnings Part
Well The Thing which is not clear to me is Post Acquisition Part
As You Have Explained With 3 Or 4 Examples
So My question is
Why Are Yu Takin $750 As Post Acquisition RE..
From Other Example And Considering And Taking $150 Value In Every Example For RE...???
M
marina·
Hello, I am confused a bit with a formula for NCI proprotionate method.
In Kaplan book (p.384) it says for the proportion of net assets methods:
NCI Value =NCI%*Fair Vailue of Net Assets at A C Q U I S I T I O N DATE
You say (4:38):
NCI Value =NCI%*Net Assets at REPORTING DATE
Why?
M
marina·
I would say the correct treatment of the NCI in the example 5, shall be:
NCI@acquisition= NCI%*FV of Net Assets at acquisition= 20%*(250+750)=200
NCI%*S's post-acquisition profit = 20%*(900-750)=30
Total NCI= 200+30=230
P
P2-D2Tutor·
Hi,
You will find the method used in the Kaplan materials and the one used here will give the same answer each time it is used when using the proportionate share of net assets method.
A question around this is, 20% of the sub's net assets at the reporting date has been attributed to NCI, and 80% of the sub's post acq profits have gone to the parent, then what about the remaining 80% of the sub's net assets at the acquisition date, where has it been accounted for?
I'm sure it must have been accounted somewhere as otherwise the balance sheet wouldn't be balanced, but just try to get my head around where it has been accounted for.
I have one doubt that is
Retained earnings Part
Well The Thing which is not clear to me is Post Acquisition Part
As You Have Explained With 3 Or 4 Examples
So My question is
Why Are Yu Takin $750 As Post Acquisition RE..
From Other Example And Considering And Taking $150 Value In Every Example For RE...???
In Kaplan book (p.384) it says for the proportion of net assets methods:
NCI Value =NCI%*Fair Vailue of Net Assets at A C Q U I S I T I O N DATE
You say (4:38):
NCI Value =NCI%*Net Assets at REPORTING DATE
Why?
NCI@acquisition= NCI%*FV of Net Assets at acquisition= 20%*(250+750)=200
NCI%*S's post-acquisition profit = 20%*(900-750)=30
Total NCI= 200+30=230
You will find the method used in the Kaplan materials and the one used here will give the same answer each time it is used when using the proportionate share of net assets method.
Thanks