this is really annoying me sir! your inputs as to which one to follow 1st or 2nd?
sir if we have a 3year bond. we have been provided with government bond yield of 4,25%, and we have been provided with 1year credit spread=75 , 2yr =95 and 3yr 120 basis for a single rating of "AA", in order to value the MV of bond, do we use YTM as:
1st one: 5% for 1st yr coupon,5.2% for 2nd yr coupon and 5.45% for 3rd yr capital and coupon
or 2nd method of: 5.45% i.e. 4.25+1.2=5.45% for all the 3years coupon and final repayment?
Ask the Tutor ACCA AFM
YTM
It is the first method.
Have you read the technical article about this on the ACCA website?
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