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PMstandard costing and variance

SSukaina4y ago
Q Ltd operates a system of standard costing and in respect of one of its products which is manufactured within a single cost centre, the following information is given. For one unit of product the standard material input is 16 litres at a standard price of £2.50 per litre. The standard wage rate is £5 per hour and 6 hours are allowed in which to produce one unit. Fixed production overhead is absorbed at the rate of 120% of direct wages cost. During the last four-week accounting period: The material price variance was extracted on purchase and the actual price paid was £2.45 per litre. Total direct wages cost was £121,500. Fixed production overhead incurred was £150,000. Variances Favourable Adverse £ £ Direct material price 8,000 Direct material usage 6,000 Direct labour rate 4,500 Direct labour efficiency 3,600 Fixed production overhead expenditure 6,000 You are required to calculate for the four-week period: (i) budgeted output in units; (ii) number of litres purchased; (iii) number of litres used above standard allowed; (iv) actual units produced; Workings (a) (i) Budget overhead cost = £150,000 – £6,000 = £144,000 Budget cost/unit = 120% (6 hrs × £5) = £36 Budgeted units = £36 £144,000 = 4,000 (ii) Material price variance = £8,000 (F) Price variance/litre = £0.05 (F) Quantity purchased = 05.0£ ,8£ 000 = 160,000 litres (iii) Usage variance = £6,000 (A) Standard price = £2.50/litre Excess usage = 50.2£ ,6£ 000 = 2,400 litres (iv) Actual wage cost = £121,500 Total wage variance = £900 (A) ––––––– Standard cost = £120,600 ––––––– Standard cost/unit = 6 hours @ £5 = £30 Actual output = £30 £120,600 = 4,020 units problem I understand how the 4020 actual units have been calculated, however if inserted to calculate a variance, say direct material usage variance it will not give -6000 as per the question. material usage variance=((16*4020)-160000)*2.5= -239200 while the question says its -6000 Another way to calculate the variance is using the material usage variance material usage variance= (160000- std qty)*2.5 -6000=(160000-std qty)*2.5 std quantity= 157600 litres no. of units= 157600/16=9850 units. However if 9850 units is used then labour rate variance will not be -4500 either way, the units calculated are different and non fit into each other. Please i hope you can assist me understand if im going wrong anywhere. thank you.
John MoffatJohn MoffatTutor4y ago#1
In future you must ask in the Ask the Tutor Forum if you want me to answer. This forum is for students to help each other :-) It does seem that there is a typing mistake in either the question or the answer in your book (assuming that you have copied the question correctly). If it is in the current edition of the BPP Revision Kit then tell me which question and I will check for myself.
SSukaina4y ago#2
Hello Sir, sorry for a late response. Thank you, i'll keep that in mind next time. The question is actually from a set of LRP questions. specifically Qn 21. It is a document i found in the StuDocu App. Perhaps the document may have a mistake then. Regardless of the case, I hope my way of analysing the question correct. kindly, Sukaina.
John MoffatJohn MoffatTutor4y ago#3
I do not know the StuDocu app, but from what you have typed their answer does seem to be wrong. (You should be using a Revision Kit from one of the ACCA Approved Publishers.)
SSukaina4y ago#4
Ok thank you sir.
John MoffatJohn MoffatTutor4y ago#5
You are welcome :-)
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