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ROI

Forums › Ask ACCA Tutor Forums › Ask the Tutor ACCA MA – FIA FMA › ROI

  • This topic has 3 replies, 2 voices, and was last updated 5 years ago by John Moffat.
Viewing 4 posts - 1 through 4 (of 4 total)
  • Author
    Posts
  • July 10, 2019 at 11:03 pm #522449
    aamir12
    Member
    • Topics: 18
    • Replies: 13
    • ☆

    Bollon uses residual Income to appraise its divisions using the cost of capital d 10%. It gives the managers or these divisions considerable autonomy although it retains the cash control function at head office.

    The following information was available for one or the divisions:
    net profit PBIT Division net Cash(overdraft)
    after tax. asset.
    $000 $000 $000 $000
    47 69 104 (21)

    What is the residual income for this division based on controllable profit and controllable net assets?
    (a) $36,600 (b) $56,500 (c) $58,600 (d) $60,700

    Dear sir,
    Cash (overdraft)
    Is a current liability
    So why do we add it when we calculate the capital employed

    July 11, 2019 at 7:39 am #522496
    John Moffat
    Keymaster
    • Topics: 57
    • Replies: 54657
    • ☆☆☆☆☆

    Cash is controlled by head office and so in arriving at the controllable net assets we need to remove the overdraft.
    Net assets are arrived at after subtracting the overdraft and so to find out what the net assets are without the overdraft we need to add it.

    July 11, 2019 at 10:30 am #522557
    aamir12
    Member
    • Topics: 18
    • Replies: 13
    • ☆

    thanks, Sir

    July 11, 2019 at 11:07 am #522579
    John Moffat
    Keymaster
    • Topics: 57
    • Replies: 54657
    • ☆☆☆☆☆

    You are welcome 🙂

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    Posts
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