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1. The costs to date is 25 therefore the p&l will already include this figure. How can the balancing p&l figure be less than incurred costs to date since it is only on the 1st year of the contract?
2. Is this a not well-designed question problem or I should use the stage of completion percentage to multiply with the revenues every time.
ps. I couldn’t search the forum about this question properly so I made a new topic, I think its a great idea to improvise the search engine within forums. Or just reply to the questions asked by students under the lectures, maybe with a notification to lecturers to notify them whenever students ask questions under the lectures.
Thanks Opentuition for the free quality lectures and informations, which really helped me a lot as a self-studying student.
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