In the formula for calculating Asset Beta:
Why do we remove the tax element from the Market Value of the debt? Isn't the interest portion only that is subject to tax relief?
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Removal of Tax from MV of Debt in Asset Beta formula
You are effectively asking me to prove the formula, which I am certainly not going to do because proving it is not in the syllabus! :-)
It is because the formula comes from M&M, and (with M&M's assumptions) the present value of the tax savings on the interest will be equal to the market value multiplied by the tax rate.
thanks John :) I understand. Just like the mv of the equity is the pv of future dividends, so is the mv of the debt.
Correct :-)
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