Sir, I am having trouble with the following example. Please Correct me where I'm mistaken!
[Example]
The $100m is received from US Customer. The current Foreign Exchange rate is $/£ 1.543. The Local Inflation rate is 4% and Foreign Inflation rate is 3%.
[Answer]
Purchase Power Parity formula is used:
S1 = $1.543 x (1.03 / 1.04) = $1.528
[If we convert $100m Cashflow today for Cash in one year's time, we will result in £65.45 round off]
If there is an increase in Inflation rate of £ to 5%
S1 = $1.543 x (1.03 / 1.05) = $1.513
[$1.513 as compared to $1.528 is less which means if we convert $100m Cashflow it will result in £66.10m round off in one year's time - which means we are getting more money]
If there is a decrease in Inflation rate of £ to 2%
S1 = $1.543 x (1.03 / 1.02) = $1.558
[$1.558 as compared to $1.528 is more which means if we convert $100m Cashflow it will result in £64.19m round off in one year's time - which means we are getting less money]
If exchange rate is lower that mean we are getting more? [Correct?]
Same goes with the Interest Rate Parity.
Ask the Tutor ACCA FM
purchase power parity and interest rate parity
What you have written is all correct.
If the UK inflation rate increases then the $/Pound exchange rate will fall. This means that the Pound has depreciated (1 pound will buy fewer $'s) and the $ has appreciated (1 dollar buys more pounds). So when the dollars are converted we end up receiving more Pounds.
The opposite happens if the UK inflation rate falls :-)
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