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Former userFormer user12y ago

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Yyaaseen12y ago#1
1000 + 10000 + 12000 - 3000= 20000 on a sales value basis P 4000 units* $5=20000 R 6000 units *$10= 60000 Total= 20000+60000=80000 R= (60000/80000) * 20000 = $15000 cost per unit of R= $15000/6000 units = $2.5
John MoffatJohn MoffatTutor12y ago#2
alighere: the answer from yaaseen is correct yaaseen: thank you for answering, but please do not answer in this forum because it is Ask the Tutor (and you are not the tutor :-) ). Please restrict yourself to answering in the general F2 forum.
Yyaaseen12y ago#3
ok John sir :)
John MoffatJohn MoffatTutor12y ago#4
Thank you :-)
DKdang khoa11mo ago#5
Hello tutor, I have a question: why the sales value basis is calculating by multiplying sales price per unit with production units, instead of sales units? Thank you!
John MoffatJohn MoffatTutor11mo ago#6
Because the costs are the costs of what is produced, whether or not the production is all sold or remains in inventory.
John MoffatJohn MoffatTutor11mo ago#7
Because the costs are the costs of what is produced, whether or not the production is all sold or remains in inventory.
DKdang khoa11mo ago#8
Oh I see. I just got a bit confused with the wording. Now everything is clear. Thanks a lot for your help. Much appreciated!
John MoffatJohn MoffatTutor11mo ago#9
You are welcome :-)
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