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Hi sir,
I have doubt in this question regarding software 500$ why in acstn it deducted and in post acstn already added . I don’t understand this part
Second thing, why goodwill impaired is taken In post acstn calculation part why ?? I see answer post acstn is 2400 after deducting goodwill and adding 500 software.
But I didn’t understand this 2 parts in this question can you please help me out. It will be great help from your side. Thanks in advance
Hi,
It has a value of 500 but has no recoverable amount then it is written down to zero, reducing the net assets by that amount.
I don’t quite follow your point on the goodwill, sorry. If you could clarify it then I can help.
Thanks
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