Hi, I came across this question and couldn’t understand the reason behind the answer given.
1. A review of pre year end correspondence with customers to identify any disputed balances.
A. Overstatement of allowances
B. Understatement of allowances
Answer given is B. Why is this so?
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Overstatement and understatement of allowances
Seems to me could be either A or B. The client could have made a 100 % allowance for a bad debt, but the correspondence could show that the customer was willing to pay, say 50%.
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