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Why is overdraft taken as balance b/f in cash flow forecast? I saw this in Question 22 BPP exam kit. (which also appeared in June 2009 exam)
Sorry if I am asking too much. But this confuses me and I need to be clear on this.
You are required to calculate the bank balance in three months time.
This will be the current balance (i.e. the overdraft at the moment) as adjusted by the cash receipts and cash payments during the coming three months.
Thank you. Makes so much sense. Just realized how stupid my question was. But thank you for answering. God Bless
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