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opportunity cost

NNoah5y ago
sir i want to understand why the following statement is true? "opportunity cost is represented by the foregone potential benefit from best rejected course of action." sir should not it be second best rejected course of action? Because the 'best' one would actually have been selected, so what would have been foregone could only be second best. Your response would be much appreciated!
John MoffatJohn MoffatTutor5y ago#1
The statement it true. For there to be an opportunity cost in the first place then we must be rejected a course of action. It is the best course of action that will have been rejected (assuming of course that it is then worthwhile doing what we are considering).
NNoah5y ago#2
so are you suggesting that we always make inefficient decisions, by forgoing the best course of action?
John MoffatJohn MoffatTutor5y ago#3
Not at all. We will only forego the best course of alternative action if what we are proposing is better. It is the benefit of the best course of action that will be lost if we continue with the new proposal. Have you watched my free lectures on this?
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