Y Plc produces widgets. Each widget should take 0.5hours to make. The standard rate of pay is $10 per hour. Idle time is expected to be 5% of hours paid. They actually produce 10,800units. They pay $50,000 for 6,000hours, of which 330 hours are ideal.
What is the excess idel time variance.
I cannot figure out how the answer was gotten as $316 adverse.
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Mock exam question on ideal time variance
Can anyone help me with above qustn........
Have you both watched the free lecture on advanced idle time variances? (The mock exam is part of a complete free course - our lectures cover everything needed for F5 and it would be silly just to attempt the test on its own.)
The standard idle time is 5% x 6,000 = 300 hours, so there are 30 hours of excess idle time.
The standard cost per working hour is 100/95 x $10 = $10.526.
Therefore the variance is 30 x $10.526 = $316 adverse
Hi sir, thanks for the rply......I haven't yet watched that video.....
You are welcome (and do watch all the videos - you don't need a Study Text if you watch all of the videos :-) )
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