Sir how are you?hope ok.need some help regarding the following question.Thank you.
Q M
M leased its head office during the current accounting period and the agreement terminates in six years’ time. There is a clause in the operating lease relating to the internal condition of the property at the termination of the lease. The clause states that the internal condition of the property should be identical to that at the outset of the lease. M has improved the building by adding another floor to part of the building during the current accounting period. There is also a clause which enables the landlord to recharge M for costs relating to the general disrepair of the building at the end of the lease. In addition, the landlord can recharge any costs of repairing the roof immediately. The landlord intends to replace part of the roof of the building during the current period. (5 marks)
Required: Discuss how the above item should be dealt with in the financial statements of M.
Sir my answer is
Ias 17 (lease) and ias 16(property plant and equipment) is relevant to the scenerio.The issue here is whether it is a finance or operating lease.As per ias 17 finance is is one where risk and rewards incidental to the ownership is transfered and this is the case in the scenerio as M is responsible for any cost to be incured relating the internal condition and termination of lease so this is classified as finance lease.M should recognise an asset in his/her sofp at lower of the present value of minimum lease payment and fair value of the asset and depreciated over lower of lease term or asset life.M should also recognise a liability and this be dealt with ifrs 9.as per ias 16 cost of asset also include directly attributable cost for bringing the asset to the location or conditions necessary to operate the asset in a way intented by management.so the cost of the adding another floor should also be capitaised with assets cost and depreciated accordingly.
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Lease
So that means we need to proportion exchange loss between nci and parent regardless valuing nci either at FV OR PROPORTINATELY.correct sir.
And whats about impairment on goodwill sir how we account for them like do we charge impairment when valuing nci proportionately.Thank you.
And sir i am a bit confused because in some solutions of foregn sub maths parent share of exchange gain is charge to retained earnibgs workings rather than oce.why
I am totally confused now Tom clendon said we dont propirtinate exchange gain loss on net assets when nci is valued at propirtinate basis.sir please help really confused now.
And sir if it is a consolidated P or L do we charge any forex gain loss full in parent retained earnings if nci is valued at proportionate to net assets.Thank you.
Yes
No, because when nci is proportionate, they don't have any goodwill so we cannot in fairness charge them with an impairment of goodwill
Only because I didn't show the statement of other comprehensive income. You're right - it should have featured in that statement that I omitted to show
Where does Tom say that? And if you knew that, why did you bother asking me "Sir do we need to proportion the exchange loss arising in net assets between parent and nci when nci 8s valued at a proportionate basis"
"if it is a consolidated P or L do we charge any forex gain loss full in parent retained earnings if nci is valued at proportionate to net assets" - what does Tom say?
Oh yes i think i got it now may be tom was confused by my questions.
Anyways sir first of all
-If nci is calculated proportionately or at fair value we also proportion forex gain Or loss on net assets and goodwill between nci and parent.
-if nci is propirtionate basis and if it is consolidated P or L than we recond whole of forex gain or loss in parent retained earnings.
-No impairment charge to nci when nci is proportionately valued.
Sir my last question if nci valued at fair value and it is consolidated Por L then how we proportionate Forex gain loss between parent and nci.so soory sir please dont mind.i am just trying my best to get this in my head.please help.
THANK YOU.
Finally sir where is our tips for p2.please sir we want your tips.
These two seem to be self-contradictory!
"-If nci is calculated proportionately or at fair value we also proportion forex gain Or loss on net assets and goodwill between nci and parent.
-if nci is propirtionate basis and if it is consolidated P or L than we recond whole of forex gain or loss in parent retained earnings."
"-No impairment charge to nci when nci is proportionately valued." should read "No goodwill impairment charge to nci when nci is proportionately valued"
Because ACCA are not publishing the September exam, there's little point in us preparing detailed tips because we don't know what was in the September paper
We shall be uploading tips from other major players and our own generalised tips
Ok thank you sir.
In fact the tips from BPP, Kaplan and Intuition are already uploaded
You're welcome
Ok sir thanks a lot.
Sir i am sorry my mistake.please dont mind.i am studying on ma own and without your help it would not be possible for me to solve this problems.please accept my apologies.
Dewan, no problem and certainly no need to apologise! I admire your spirit in tackling these exams on your own and am happy to assist where I can
Hi mike how are you hope well.ok mike i am confused why debt instruments that are financial asset(FA) are subsequently accounted for amortised cost if thet meet bussiness model and cahflow test.but what if the debt instrument FA have satisfied the test but are also sold before maturity if the holder of the FA have got another investment with higher returns.as 8 can see its measured at FVTOCI.bt FVTOCI is not it for equity instrument FA.please clarify me on this matter.Thanks.and could you please explain it in simple englishad i am not very goid at understanding complex english words .Thanks.
If the debt instrument FA meet contractual contractual cash flow assessment and entitys business model is to hold the instrument to collect contractual cash flow and also to sell the FA than it is accounted trough FVTOCI.
Am i correct sir.
And sir in case of impairment for FA measured at amortised cost what would be the double entry for the loss allowance.Thanks
As if i am not wrong loss allowance for FA measured at FVTOCI dould entry would be
P or L (DR)
OCI (CR)
Am i correct sir
And sir is expected loss model is still in use for impairment of FA.Thank you.
"Am I correct sir" yes, you are correct
"P or L (Dr)
OCI (Cr)" - no. Dr OCI, Cr Financial Asset
"is expected loss model still in use" - yes, it is still in use
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