sir in the kaplan kit the below statement was stated as wrong
when i looked for explalantion it wast there
could you please explain why the below statement is wrong
thank you
A prospective merger would need to result in a
company having a market share greater than 80%
before it can be described as a monopoly
Ask the Tutor ACCA FM
kaplan kit doubt
4y ago#1Because there is no defined % that makes it a monopoly.
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