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Investment Appraisal-Taxation

Forums › Ask ACCA Tutor Forums › Ask the Tutor ACCA FM Exams › Investment Appraisal-Taxation

  • This topic has 3 replies, 3 voices, and was last updated 5 years ago by John Moffat.
Viewing 4 posts - 1 through 4 (of 4 total)
  • Author
    Posts
  • September 10, 2020 at 5:44 pm #584835
    adarsh1997
    Participant
    • Topics: 646
    • Replies: 282
    • ☆☆☆☆

    Hello,

    – A company receives a perpetuity of $20,000 per annum in arrears, and pays 30% corporation tax 12 months
    after the end of the year to which the cash flows relate.
    At a cost of capital of 10%, what is the after tax present value of the perpetuity?
    A $140,000
    B $145,454
    C $144,000
    D $127,274

    1. The answer is B
    2.Could you please explain how to calculate the PV of the corporation tax?

    September 11, 2020 at 11:41 am #584957
    John Moffat
    Keymaster
    • Topics: 57
    • Replies: 54752
    • ☆☆☆☆☆

    The PV of the perpetuity before tax is 20,000/0.1 = 200,000.

    The PV of the tax outflows is therefore 30% x 200,000 x 1/1.10 (to discount for one extra year because the tax is one year later).

    September 13, 2020 at 2:24 pm #585452
    bazzy
    Member
    • Topics: 1
    • Replies: 6
    • ☆

    20000/.1 – ((6000/.1)/1.1)

    September 13, 2020 at 2:40 pm #585459
    John Moffat
    Keymaster
    • Topics: 57
    • Replies: 54752
    • ☆☆☆☆☆

    bazzy: Please don’t answer in this forum because it is Ask the Tutor and you are not the tutor (but please do help people in the other Paper FM forum) 🙂

    What you have written is the same as my reply.

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    Posts
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