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impairment loss

AAlisha5y ago
sir, if the question says goodwill has been impaired by 2million , we need to credit goodwill by 2million right? but in bpp practise book question number 309 (a) , they havent credited goodwill for impairment loss ? why is that ?
P2-D2P2-D2Tutor5y ago#1
Hi, Yes, an impairment is the reduction in the value of the goodwill asset. A credit entry is therefore required to reduce the goodwill be the 2 million. Thanks
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