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goodwill impairment

Yyourerica14y ago
is there any case that goodwill impairment should only be charged against to subsidary's retained earnings ? Cheers!
MikeLittleMikeLittleTutor14y ago#1
Not that I can think of - why would it be? It isn't even partly charged against the subsidiary retained earnings so why anyone would want to charge it fully against the subsidiary beats me!
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