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Free Cash flow

Mmansoor10y ago
good morning! i have reproduced a cashflow statement given in a question (bpp). we are supposed to value of the company using free cashflow for the next 5 years. growth rates are also given. i know the mechanics but what i dont know is how to get the starting figure. of course that means i totally lack the understanding of FCF and FCFE. In the answer, it simply says "based on the X5 FCFE post reinvestment of 87.2, which represents a surrogate for the dividend that could be paid...." how does he get this figure? what does post reinvestment signify? ------------------------------------------------------------X5----------------------X4 Net cashflow from operating activities -------210-----------------------95 Return on Investment and servicing of finance Interest received------------------------12------------------------------6 interest paid------------------------------(4)-----------------------------(3) interest element in fin. leases-------(6.5)--------------------------(4) -----------------------------------------------------------1.5------------------------(1) taxation------------------------------------------------(4.1)-----------------------(0.2) Cap Ex------------------------------------------------(120.2)--------------------(75) Acquisition and Disposals Proceeds from sale of Joint ventures---------10 cash inflow before mgmt of liquid resources---------------------------------------------97.2-------------------------33.8 Management of liquid resources Dec/(inc) of short term deposits---------------35.5--------------------------(32.2) Financing Repayment of secured loan--------------------(31)----------------------------(25) inc/(dec) in cashflow for the year-------------101.7---------------------------(23.4)
John MoffatJohn MoffatTutor10y ago#1
It is difficult for me to follow the figures because the tabbing comes out strange on here. Please tell me the name of the question in the BPP Revision Kit and then I can look at it properly.
Mmansoor10y ago#2
question 38 - Fly 4000
John MoffatJohn MoffatTutor10y ago#3
The 87.2 is the cash inflow before bringing in the proceeds of the sale of the joint venture (which is something that will not be repeated in the future) .
Mmansoor10y ago#4
sir.....y r we removing this sale of jv?
John MoffatJohn MoffatTutor10y ago#5
Because it is a 'one-off' and is not going to repeat in the future.
Mmansoor10y ago#6
thank u ..:) i guess i am still confused as to what constitutes FCF. i will read up more and ask u again....:)
John MoffatJohn MoffatTutor10y ago#7
We are needing the current free cash flow to be able to forecast the future. The proceeds from sale of the joint venture will not be repeated in the future.
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