Skip to content

ACCA Forums

FM*** F9 June 2012 Exam was … Comments and Instant Poll ***

OopentuitionAdmin14y ago
Post your comments about June 2012 F9 exam.

?How did you do? What came up? How did this paper compare to previous exams?

Vote in our Instant Poll
*** F9 June 2012 Exam was … Comments and Instant Poll *** poll results
Aaneelraja14y ago#121
hello again,
i do understand the the rest, but to calculate the spread u need variance of cash flow, transaction costs and interest rate . And either i was stupid or i was confused but i didnt saw these figures any where in the question.
And i am more confused because it was an easy Q (if i had the figures).
Ssohanidevi14y ago#122
@ammar-shabbir said:
Hello Everyone i just want to comment regarding Q.1 for the calculation of npv i used after tax rate of 7 % the reason being that in WACC there r 2 components Ke & Kd in case of Ke there is no tax but in Case of Kd it is tax deductible thus for npv calculation i took 7 % rate after tax.... however in part b asset replacement Qs...
i used 12% the reason being that it explicitly stated that ignore tax & capital allowance....thus i used 12 % before tax so do comment whether it was logical or not..... thanks.....
In Q4 i did make a blunder i took year 3 dividend value & use that in dvm formula & got an utterly ocnfusing figure 1444444... something like that.... but hoefully i might get 2.5/4 as i correctly calculated Ke.....

for the dvm i got 11444 million. i took yr three since the question mentioned the company was struggling financially for the last two yrs
Ssohanidevi14y ago#123
@aneelraja said:
hello again,
i do understand the the rest, but to calculate the spread u need variance of cash flow, transaction costs and interest rate . And either i was stupid or i was confused but i didnt saw these figures any where in the question.
And i am more confused because it was an easy Q (if i had the figures).

hey the spread was given so we didnt had to calculate it. the spread given was 75000
Kkachaloo14y ago#124
@ochieng said:
the p/e qn required us to compute the current earnings given the earnings of 3 prior years. earnings thus grew by by the square root of 4300/3000)-1 which gave me about 19.6percent. used that to compute the current earnings and multiplied the earnings by 5 to get the mkt value

Well I said if the earings were forecasted as with 3% growth. So if the earings of 30,000 in Year 1 including the 3% growth so the current earning must have been 30,000/1.03=29126 and use that in PE vaulation as 29126x5=14563 Hope I get some credit for it ;)
Kkachaloo14y ago#125
@royyston said:
Hi for Q4 did anyone get Ke= 12%, WACC= 10% and new Ke = 14% and new WACC = 10.3%? Thanks

I did the same... So we both are either right or wrong...;)
Kkachaloo14y ago#126
@aneelraja said:
hello again,
i do understand the the rest, but to calculate the spread u need variance of cash flow, transaction costs and interest rate . And either i was stupid or i was confused but i didnt saw these figures any where in the question.
And i am more confused because it was an easy Q (if i had the figures).

spread was given as 75,000 so did not need any transaction cost etc to use the formula.
Minimum level 200000+spread 75000 = 275000 Upper level
Return point 20000+1/3 of 75000= 250000
Cash to be transferred out when hit upper limit = 50000 (I mentioned it in discussion)
Llibratype14y ago#127
@royyston said:
Hi for Q4 did anyone get Ke= 12%, WACC= 10% and new Ke = 14% and new WACC = 10.3%? Thanks

we are three with same results!:)
Llibratype14y ago#128
@kachaloo said:
spread was given as 75,000 so did not need any transaction cost etc to use the formula.
Minimum level 200000+spread 75000 = 275000 Upper level
Return point 20000+1/3 of 75000= 250000
Cash to be transferred out when hit upper limit = 50000 (I mentioned it in discussion)

return point 200 000+ 1/3 75000=225 000
Former userFormer user14y ago#129
@royyston said:
Hi for Q4 did anyone get Ke= 12%, WACC= 10% and new Ke = 14% and new WACC = 10.3%? Thanks


me
Kkachaloo14y ago#130
@libratype said:
return point 200 000+ 1/3 75000=225 000

sorry you are right it was typo...
Ccazza9914y ago#131
@royyston said:
Hi for Q4 did anyone get Ke= 12%, WACC= 10% and new Ke = 14% and new WACC = 10.3%? Thanks

Yep. me too. Think that's 5 so far.
Zzahidbd14y ago#132
@cazza99 said:
Yep. me too. Think that's 5 so far.

so got 5 marks r8...thnx god
Zzahidbd14y ago#133
@rawfay said:
Q4

For people complaining about no dividends in the current year. Remember the dividend for the 2nd year were given.

And remember that DVM formula in which Do(1+g) = D1

so you were already given the D1 value :D

is'nt it was a forcast of future earnings and dividend…..n the question asked for the current mv ……so i think u gt the mv of the forcasted yr1…which is nxt year….bt what abt current year…..but u did an exellent job….of thinking abt the d(1+g) as a whole….nice
Ccazza9914y ago#134
So, has anyone come up with a definitive way of valuing Co with DVM with no dividends?? I can't figure out how we were supposed to do it.
Zzahidbd14y ago#135
@cazza99 said:
So, has anyone come up with a definitive way of valuing Co with DVM with no dividends?? I can't figure out how we were supposed to do it.

i guess we hv 2 w8 till the examiner speaks....
Dderek06714y ago#136
To value the company by dvm and going by previous exams when no dividend in current year so no growth to next year .....use year 1 as current year so yr2 dividend is div + g divide this by the cost of equity(i think 12%) you now have a value in year 1 terms so multiply by year 1 12% disc rate and you have the answer.Got it wrong myself i just divided yr1 div by 12%,i dont think it is right and going by pevious exams its wrong but techniqne right so maybe a couple of marks anyway
Former userFormer user14y ago#137
time was very pressing. too many discussion ques to answer. Q1 and Q2 took me almost 2hr. Q4 was a disaster for me!

For Q1, can anyone tell me if fixed cost should be included in calculating NPV? I included it and thought I made mistake just when I handed in papaer!!!
Former userFormer user14y ago#138
For q1, do we use pre-tax cost of capital of 12% for (a) and post-tax 7% for (b), or do we use post-tax cost of capital of 7% for both? Thanks!
Rrinku14y ago#139
@zahidbd said:
so got 5 marks r8...thnx god


I too got the same answer - so it's 6 so far :)
Kkhizrak14y ago#140
Will the examiner give decent marks if i 'assumed' a dividend and no. of shares value? I mentioned my assumption in bold writing.
Kkhizrak14y ago#141
besides when will they upload the question paper? audit was uploaded within HOURS!
Former userFormer user14y ago#142
@cazza99 said:
Yep. me too. Think that's 5 so far.

Cool, seems like all 6 of us have the same answer for 4b. ;)
Hharjit2914y ago#143
Hi all, I found Q4 a massive challenge! I have never seen a question on WACC based on that type of scenario in all the past papers I studied from! I was completely confused and gutted! The examiner really tweaked the question this time round on a section of the paper that has been somewhat similar in the past papers, I feel 25 points robbed! I would have accepted it had it been in past paper & I chose to ignore it but never has it been structured in this way!! I have the previouse comments and most of you feel like me, unsure how to work the answer out! I wish we could do something to put out thoughts forward to ACCA. The questions asked in Q4 were exactly how they were presented in past papers but the scenario was tweaked hugely (I felt) by the examiner. I just feel gutted as studied so hard and I know I will have to re-take the exam due to the scenario being so different. What do you all think?
Rryan2514y ago#144
got the same answers for question 4b too...:)
Former userFormer user14y ago#145
I would like to share your feelings, as i studied also very hard and long. It's a pity to fail only because of that question.
@harjit29 said:
Hi all, I found Q4 a massive challenge! I have never seen a question on WACC based on that type of scenario in all the past papers I studied from! I was completely confused and gutted! The examiner really tweaked the question this time round on a section of the paper that has been somewhat similar in the past papers, I feel 25 points robbed! I would have accepted it had it been in past paper & I chose to ignore it but never has it been structured in this way!! I have the previouse comments and most of you feel like me, unsure how to work the answer out! I wish we could do something to put out thoughts forward to ACCA. The questions asked in Q4 were exactly how they were presented in past papers but the scenario was tweaked hugely (I felt) by the examiner. I just feel gutted as studied so hard and I know I will have to re-take the exam due to the scenario being so different. What do you all think?
Jjm8414y ago#146
I agree that Question 4 is very challenging, but consider the level of difficulty in question1,2,3 is just fine, it is very clear that examiner set question 4 to differentiate candidates of different level.

I also got 10% and 10.3% for the WACC. for P/E market value i got $15million.
Former userFormer user14y ago#147
Yes, some exam questions were rather unexpected. Concerning DVM of question 4, I think, it may be solved as follows:

1. Multiply each future dividend by growth rate (d*(1+g)).
2. Find PVs of the results of the above and divide by (r-g).

Here is a revision lecture on this issue (the exact name of lecture I don't remember).

However I remembered this solution only at the end of the exam and couldn't finish the calculations.
Bbenjamincozoemena14y ago#148
Y is everybody getting 10% and 10.3% for d WACC ? I got 5.2% and 5.52%. respectively...and my reasons r dat even though d capital structure changed from 75%equity: 25%debt to 60%equity: 40%debt, the risk(:) also increased from 1.6(can't even remember d figure again, but I fink it's 1.6) to 2...and so the WACC also increased, ordinarily WACC should reduce as a result of increase in debt and decrease in equity, but d risk was also increased.
Ccazza9914y ago#149
@benjamincozoemena said:
Y is everybody getting 10% and 10.3% for d WACC ? I got 5.2% and 5.52%. respectively...and my reasons r dat even though d capital structure changed from 75%equity: 25%debt to 60%equity: 40%debt, the risk(:) also increased from 1.6(can't even remember d figure again, but I fink it's 1.6) to 2...and so the WACC also increased, ordinarily WACC should reduce as a result of increase in debt and decrease in equity, but d risk was also increased.

Hi Ben
The increase in WACC was due to the new cost of equity (14%) found by using the new Beta (2) in CAPM again. My understanding is that you would only expect the WACC to decrease on the initial introduction of debt capital, but as debt was already in the structure (at 75:25) then it is an increase in debt which inevitably increases the risk (:) which increases the cost of equity which increases the WACC.
That was my take on it anyway..... However I could be wrong!
Ccazza9914y ago#150
Ben. I'd be interested to know what diff figures you used from a few of us to get 5.2?
Maybe when the q's come out it may be easier to see. Curious that we all got an increase in WACC of 0.3 though.......
Topic lockedNew replies are closed.