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Ssan11y ago
waffle had share capital of 7.5million in 50c equity shares at october 20x6 . on january 20x7 it made an issue of 4 million shares at full market price immediately followed by a 1 for 3 bonus issye the financial statement at 30 september 20x7 showed profit for the year of 12 million . what wa sEPS for the year A 53c B 73c C 48c D 50c therefore 15000 shares then + 4000*9/12 (jan to sep)+ 18000/3 bonus issue the we get ans D 50c but doubt is we should do on outstanding bases right then it should be 15000*3/12 (oct to dec) can you clarify me sir thank you in advance
MMikeLittleTutor11y ago#1
15,000,000 x 3/12 x 4/3 = 5,000,000 (19,000,000 + 6,333,333) x 9/12 = 19,000,000 WANES = 24,000,000 Earnings are 12,000,000 Therefore EPS is 12,000 / 24,000 = 50c per share Post again if you don't understand :-)
Ssan11y ago#2
thank you sir i got it
MMikeLittleTutor11y ago#3
You're welcome
MMikeLittleTutor10y ago#4
Ifeomi, it's been corrected!
448percent6y ago#5
can you please explain how do you get this one (19,000,000 + 6,333,333) x 9/12 = 19,000,000 6,333,333?
PP2-D2Tutor6y ago#6
Hi, They had 19,000,000 shares and did a one-for-three bonus issue, so multiply the 19,000,000 by 1/3 to give the 6,333,333. Thanks
PPhoebe6y ago#7
Can you explain please where 4/3 came from in this equation 15,000,000 x 3/12 x 4/3 = 5,000,000 And also the 15 000 000. Thank you so much
PP2-D2Tutor6y ago#8
It is the bonus fraction. They did a 1-for-3 bonus issue. There were 3 shares in issue before and 4 after, hence 4/3. Thanks
SSuzy5y ago#9
Hi sir, I have a question here, for the fresh issue of 4000 on 1 Jan, why doesn't it required to multiply by the bonus fraction? My workings: 1 OCt x6 15000 x 3/12 x 4/3 = 5000 1 Jan x7 4000 -------- 19000 x 9/12 x 4/3 =19000 (bonus1/3) 6333 x 9/12 = 4749.75 ------------ 28749.75 Thank you.
PP2-D2Tutor5y ago#10
Hi, You only apply the fraction to the shares that have been in issue previously to take account of the free shares that have been issued. The 4,000 are the free shares that have been issued and so there is no need to make an adjustment. Thanks
SSuzy5y ago#11
Thank you Sir, So for the 4000 is not required to multiply by the bonus fraction as it is issued on the same date as the bonus issue, and not been issue previously, did i interpret it correctly? thank you so much
PP2-D2Tutor5y ago#12
You're welcome. Yes, you've interpreted it correctly. Thanks
SSuzy5y ago#13
thanks a lot sir.
PP2-D2Tutor5y ago#14
You're welcome!
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