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Currency Hedging

Forums › Ask ACCA Tutor Forums › Ask the Tutor ACCA AFM Exams › Currency Hedging

  • This topic has 2 replies, 2 voices, and was last updated 13 years ago by John Moffat.
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  • November 17, 2012 at 3:46 am #55401
    dazhong0703
    Member
    • Topics: 44
    • Replies: 130
    • ☆☆

    Question “Polytot”, Why should the currency exchange sign be $/£, but below put “Philadelphia SE £/$ options £3,1250” and “£/$ currency futures (CME, £62,500)”?
    Thank you.

    November 17, 2012 at 4:10 am #107692
    dazhong0703
    Member
    • Topics: 44
    • Replies: 130
    • ☆☆

    Is there tick value for currency futures or not? One lecturer’s workings show tick value, another do not.

    November 17, 2012 at 9:16 pm #107693
    John Moffat
    Keymaster
    • Topics: 57
    • Replies: 54831
    • ☆☆☆☆☆

    It is always like that. For exchange rates $/£ is giving the value of 1£ in $’s. The reason the futures are £/$ is simply because they have to be purchased in units based on £’s (in your example contracts of £62,500).

    There is a tick value for currency futures – it is 0.0001.
    However you do not need to use ticks in the exam (I never bother myself) unless the question specifically asks you to.

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