Consolidation : Highveltd – BPP (previous edition) pg33

Hello, This conso question is from bpp. Could you help me plz? From Note (iv) : "Samson’s development project was completed on 30 September 20X4 at a cost of $50 million. $10 million of this had been amortised by 31 March 20X5. Development costs capitalised by Samson at the date of acquisition were $18 million. Highveldt’s directors are of the opinion that Samson’s development costs do not meet the criteria in IAS 38 ‘Intangible Assets’ for recognition as an asset. " Answer explanation as per BPP : "At acquisition Samson had capitalised $18m of development expenditure. Highveldt does not recognise this as an asset, so the net assets at acquisition are reduced by $18m. A further $32m is capitalised by Samson post acquisition; this will be written off in the consolidated income statement (net of the $10m amortisation already charged)." My Question : (i) From what I understand, if the question says $10m of the development project of $50m has been amortised by 31/03/05, therfore it means that the whole development project of $50m has been capitalized by that date as well for it to be amortised. Is that correct? However it says further that “ development cost capitalized by Samson at DOA is $18m” I don’t understand, could you explain please? (ii)As per BPP ans above : “A further $32m is capitalized by Samson post acquisition..” Could you explain that as well? I cannot see any mention of this in the question. (iii)If the development expenditure of $18m is derecognized in the fair value adjustments, then why only $32m of it is written off in the Ret. Earnings instead of the whole $50m? Where does the $18m go? Thank you