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Chapter 21 – Example 1

Forums › Ask ACCA Tutor Forums › Ask the Tutor ACCA FR Exams › Chapter 21 – Example 1

  • This topic has 3 replies, 2 voices, and was last updated 10 years ago by MikeLittle.
Viewing 4 posts - 1 through 4 (of 4 total)
  • Author
    Posts
  • November 10, 2015 at 7:10 pm #281578
    Chris
    Member
    • Topics: 8
    • Replies: 35
    • ☆

    Good afternoon Sir,

    in the first example we are given the scenario whereby a rights issue is given to shareholders at a price of £3 per share purchased.

    Do we use 4 shares in our workings because this is the amount you would need to hold in order to get a rights issue?

    I hope you understand what I have written, apologies if I am not clear but I am hoping you know what I mean.

    So for instance, if the rights issue was 3 for 1.

    would our calculation be 3 shares @ £4 each giving a value of £12
    and then the calculation for the rights issue underneath?

    Many thanks in advance.

    Chris.

    November 10, 2015 at 7:38 pm #281580
    Chris
    Member
    • Topics: 8
    • Replies: 35
    • ☆

    Sir I am also struggling to understand example three… I understand the workings but I do not understand the theory behind it.

    Why are we only allowing for 600,000 of the shares? The 600,000 being £12M divided by the mid-market price and then that is the difference of the original share capital?

    I have read over the question and looked at the answer but can’t seem to understand or get the logic… What am I missing?

    November 10, 2015 at 8:04 pm #281586
    MikeLittle
    Keymaster
    • Topics: 27
    • Replies: 23361
    • ☆☆☆☆☆

    “The 600,000 being £12M divided by the mid-market price” er, no! $12,000,000 divided by mid-market price is 2,400,000 shares

    2,400,000 deducted from the 3,000,000 options gives you the 600,000

    What we are saying is that 3 million @$4 is the equivalent of 2.4 million @ $5 plus 600,000 FREE shares

    And it’s those free shares that are the diluting shares

    Better?

    November 10, 2015 at 8:08 pm #281588
    MikeLittle
    Keymaster
    • Topics: 27
    • Replies: 23361
    • ☆☆☆☆☆

    No!

    “So for instance, if the rights issue was 3 for 1.

    would our calculation be 3 shares @ £4 each giving a value of £12
    and then the calculation for the rights issue underneath?”

    A 3 for 1 rights issue would have the top line as 1 share, mid market price, total value of 1 share (This is 3 for 1 – unusual – it would normally be 1 for 3)

    Next line 3 shares, exercise price, total cost of the extra 3 shares

    Third line , now have 4 shares with a total value of $xxxx

    So each of those 4 shares is theoretically worth $yyy

    Get your head round that and get back to me if you need to

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