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Bold Co, Part C (BPP practice kit) - Alternative Theory

GGabriel5y ago
Dear fellow students & tutors, My friend & I have an alternative theory in relation to this question. We understand that the answer is not similar to the answer provided in the practice kit. However, we would like to put our theory to the test. Kindly give us a feedback. With-recourse offer Revised trade receivables under factoring = $2,042,466 Reduction in trade receivables = $3,500,000 - $2,042,466 = $1,457,534 Admin cost savings = $40,000 Bad debt savings $21,300,000 x (9 - 6)% = $ 63,900 Finance cost savings: - Reduction in trade receivables $1,457,534 x 7% = $102,027 - Reduction in overdraft to nil, restricted to $210,000 - 102,027 (W1) = $107,973 Less: Factor fee $21,300,000 x 0.75% = - $159,750 Interest on factor advance $2,042,466 x 80% x 9% = - $147,058 Value of with-recourse offer = $7,092 (W1) Overdraft balance upon reduction in trade receivables $3,000,000 - $1,457,534 = $1,542,466 Further reduction in overdraft due to factor advance $2,042,466 x 80% = $1,633,973 The overdraft balance should turn into a positive bank balance after the factoring advance. This means that the total amount of finance cost (i.e. $210,000) would be saved.
John MoffatJohn MoffatTutor5y ago#1
The BPP answer is correct (and is simply a reprint of the examiners own answer to the question). There is a flaw in your solution. The question is requiring calculation of the net benefit of using the factor. If the factor was not offering the advance of 80%, then they would be paying overdraft interest on that amount of 2,042,466 x 80% x 7%. Because the factor is giving the advance, they will not be paying that overdraft interest but instead will be paying interest to the factor of 2,042,466 x 80% x 9% So there is a cost of using the factor of the extra 2%.
GGabriel5y ago#2
Thank you, Mr. Moffat.
John MoffatJohn MoffatTutor5y ago#3
You are welcome :-)
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