Beneficial Loan <10000

Chris: – Is employed by Methley Ltd and owns 10% of its ordinary shares. – Is a higher rate taxpayer – Methley Ltd would provide Chris with an interest-free loan of £9,600 on 1 October 2016. – The loan would be written off in three years’ time. In the answer, the beneficial loan was treated as "9600 x 25%". It was given, "When the loan is written off, this will be treated as a distribution as Chris is a shareholder in Methley Ltd, which is a close company." My question is, where did 25% come from and shouldn't income tax be found for the "9600 x 25%" figure?