Sir
I may have a few followups after this one on this topic.
1. when he gives the gearing for the property market, he uses the term "gearing (adjusted for tax)".
my question is: what does he mean by this? if i was to take a shot at it, i wd say that this is:
D(1-T) / [D(1-T)+E]. correct?
and since the tax thingy has been adjusted, that is why when we are calculating the asset beta, we do not use 50/50+.65x50.
is that correct?
Ask the Tutor ACCA AFM
BBS stores - j 09 part b
That is correct :-)
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