Please help with one small question in task Andash.
I don't understand one issue in calculation of investment in associate.
Why do we eliminate inter-company profit (8*25%) - it is said in question that "Joma had sold inventory to Andash -it means that associate sells to parent and transaction shpoul look like : Dr RE Cr Inventory. If it was that parent sells to associate then transaction is Dr RE Cr Invenstment in associate. Am I right? Why then in this task we should eliminate inter-company profit - it should not influent on investment in associate?
.
I don't understand one issue in calculation of investment in associate.
Why do we eliminate inter-company profit (8*25%) - it is said in question that "Joma had sold inventory to Andash -it means that associate sells to parent and transaction shpoul look like : Dr RE Cr Inventory. If it was that parent sells to associate then transaction is Dr RE Cr Invenstment in associate. Am I right? Why then in this task we should eliminate inter-company profit - it should not influent on investment in associate?
.
