Reference to the book of OT example 3
$2.4 million (goodwill) - $0.5 million (patent))
Should it be -1.5? Instead of -0.5. Because we are getting $1.5m because someone else is purchasing it. so the impairment loss would be 0.5. But we are collecting the amount we're going to get? i guess.
Ask the Tutor ACCA FR
AS36 Impairments
No, the patent is reduced to 1.5 and so there is a 0.5 reduction that we then use when working out how much of the total impairment has been reduced.
Thanks
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