Skip to content

FR

Investment property - ACCA Financial Reporting (FR)

VIVA Subject Guide
YouTube video

25 Comments

  1. Vicky
    "I'm human. It happens." This is lovely - it's the attitude I've seen at work among most accountants. In recognising human error we put controls in place to prevent them slipping through. And we know how to appreciate each other all the while. Thank you as always for a great lecture.
  2. Jiselle
    I would like to know why the student below Dr PPE (SFP) with 1,000



    "mariakurina says

    June 9, 2020 at 2:53 pm

    It will definitely be added to SFP.

    But for revaluation entries are

    Dr PPE (SFP) 1,000
    Dr Acc depreciation (SFP) 500
    Cr Reval surplus (SFP + OCI) 1,500"
  3. Mohamed
    Investment Property (IP) revalued at fair value through profit or loss (PL): Under IAS 40, when an asset is classified as investment property and measured at fair value, any changes in its fair value are recognized directly in the profit or loss (PL). If you were to recognize these changes in OCI (other comprehensive income), it would create a misleading picture because the revaluation method for IP under IAS 40 does not allow for such treatment. Fair value changes are meant to impact PL immediately to reflect the economic reality.

    OCI for PPE (Property, Plant, and Equipment): When it comes to PPE, the revaluation surplus (if the revaluation model is used) is recorded in OCI and accumulated in equity. It is only transferred to PL when the asset is sold or derecognized, aligning with the principles of matching income and expenses. This ensures that gains or losses are not prematurely recognized while the asset remains in use and on the balance sheet.

    Transfer from PPE to IP: When a PPE is reclassified as IP under IAS 40 (paragraph 62(ii)), any revaluation surplus in OCI remains in OCI until the IP is sold. It cannot be transferred directly to PL, as that would lead to distortions in reported financial performance. Upon disposal of the IP, the accumulated OCI can then be transferred to retained earnings (RE), but it will not flow through PL.

    Your approach is in line with IFRS standards and emphasizes transparency in financial reporting, preventing misrepresentation of gains or losses.
  4. Amin
    For the SOFP, at Y.e, IP is increased by 21,600 to account for the revaluation at FV. Is it appropriate to also say that Property is decreased by (19,500) [FV after 500 depreciation] and IP shows 21,000 as at 01/07/15 to account for the "reallocation" of the property from admin purposes to investment purposes.

    For example, there may be other properties under the ownership of the company but we only discussion to transfer of one property to IP, so In figure rather than ignoring property altogether in SOFP, it's better to address it's transfer to IP?
  5. Hamza
    Liverpool!! oh yeahh you go Chris, anyways great lectures mate !!
  6. Haider
    Dear Tutor,

    Why haven't you shown the Revaluation Reserve under SFP for the $1.5m?
  7. Konichan
    He did it
    $1.5m go to SFPOCI under OCI section
  8. Syam Krishnan Kamath
    In the study text (BPP) and other sources mention that a property that is under construction for future use as Investment Property is treated as Investment property and not as PPE uner IAS 16!!
    https://www.iasplus.com/en/standards/ias/ias40
  9. haider
    Amount in OCI, does it get recycled to P&L? thanks
  10. Dean
    Speaking of directly attributable costs,
    if purchase tax is irrecoverable, it is capitalised. ???
    I dont get it. Please help me.
    Thank you.
  11. aarti
    Yes, it will be capitalised as long as it is irrecoverable.
  12. abdullahkhan0
    if a property is classified as IP valued under cost model, do we have to depreciate the property?
  13. aarti
    Investment properties should initially be recognised at cost. However, for subsequent measurement we have 2 options under IAS 40, one is cost cost model and the other being fair value model. Once a method has been chosen it should be applied consistently and to all investment properties.

    Now, in case of cost model, investment property would be depreciated normally like any other property, plant and equipment. No year end revaluations would be accounted for, unless it is downward, in which we would record an impairment loss(Dr SPL).
  14. vijaya
    In a fair value model, you revalue the asset at each year end, so there is no requirement to charge depreciation
  15. Anna
    Hi,

    With reference to the inventory transfer to IP - so we calculate the difference between cost/nrv (depending on what's lower) and FV and this difference goes to SPL?

    Thanks,
    Anna
  16. Nomad
    Also the gain on PPE is 1500 and it comes under OCI right. But at the same time shouldnt it comes under Revaluation Reserve as 1500 in SFP ?
  17. Nomad
    I didnt know that you were a liverpool fan <3 .
    Hope they gonna raise the PL trophy this season. Btw your lectures were amazing!!!
  18. Matt
    Hey, you realised there was a mistake - depreciation should be 1000, but then you didnt change it to 1000, you left it as 500, so the answer is wrong.
  19. P2-D2Tutor
    Hey, there is no mistake as the change in usage took place half way through the year and so we only have 6 months of depreciation, which is 500 and not 1,000 as you state.
  20. priya
    Hi sir
    19500-21000=1500
    is 1500 revaluation surplus?
  21. P2-D2Tutor
    Hi,

    For a change in use from PPE to IP we revalue under IAS 16 before the transfer to IP, therefore the revalution will go through other comprehensive income (revaluation surplus).

    Thanks
  22. Michael
    Hello Chris,

    Thank you for the video.

    In relation to the 1,500 OCI surplus. Would you also have to add to the SOFP a Revaluation Surplus of 1,500 in equity? Because the journal is:

    Dr PPE (SOFP) 1,500
    Cr Revaluation Surplus (SOFP and OCI) 1,500

    And the journal to record the Gain on the Investment Property is:
    Dr PPE (SOFP) 600
    Cr Gain on Investment Property (SPLOCI) 600

    Is this correct?
  23. sabina1717
    Thanks for the lecture, the only thing I want to ask is the following.

    As you said, if owner occupied property is transfering to IP then it is revalued under IAS 16 and then treated as IP.

    So, on 1st of July it was transferred to IP and its cost was 19.5k and NRV (fair value) was 21 mln. Why we dont take the lowest one which is 19.5?
  24. P2-D2Tutor
    Hi,

    Glad you're finding the lectures useful.

    We revalue to fair value, which here is the 21 million, so will use this figure.

    Thanks
  25. gbm78
    Is it correct to take the 19.5k instead of the 21 million if we were transferring from IAS 16 to IAS 2?
    Great video.
    Thanks

Leave a comment