I just love ur lecture.its soooooooooo helpful.i think I start understanding many things which first I was trying to guess. thank u for this great support.i have a question always I got confused when to use which table? my exam is this week.i hv asked some question which I have not got answer yet.so plz help me.thank u.

Have you watched the main lecture on investment appraisal?

The present value factors are for discounting individual cash flows, the annuity tables are for discounting an equal cash flow that occurs for several years.

As I have said before, this is not the place to ask questions – it is forcimmentingon lectures. I only guarantee to answer questions in the Ask the Tutor forum – it is just not possible for me to read throught every comment on every lecture for five different examinations!

Sir,i hv asked question in the ask the tutor there yesterday.but I hv not got answer.thats y I thought to ask u here as I told u my exam is this week.so I need to clear all my confusion.sorry if I made mistake.

I have answered all questions in the ask the tutor forum. We cannot answer immediately – we have to sleep and work – but we try to answer within 24 hours

Morgannesays

Please can u assist me on this question. An investment has the following cash inflows and cash outflows:

TIME CASH FLOW PER ANNUM 0 (20,000) 1-4 3000 5-8 7000 10 (10,000)

What is the net present value of the investment at a discount rate of 8 %?

For the flow from 1-4, you simply multiply by the 4 year annuity discount factor at 8%. For the flow from 5 to 8, you need to subtract the 4 year annuity factor from the 8 year annuity factor – this will give you the factor for 5-8. For the 10,000 in 10 years time, you multiply by the ordinary 10 year discount factor. (You might find it more useful to watch the full lectures on this topic rather than the revision lectures 馃檪 Also, please in future ask this sort of question in the Paper F2 Ask the ACCA Tutor Forum.)

Please Sir.. i do not know how to work this question out in proper steps. Oh and by the way, I got this question from BPP. I look forward for your reply.

I am surprised that BPP do not show workings for the answer!

All you need do is this: For the inflow at time 1, multiply the cash flow by the 1 year discount factor at 10% For the cash flow at time 2, multiply by the 1 year discount factor at 10% and then multiply by the 1 year discount factor at 15%. (This discounts 1 year at 10% and 1 year at 15%)

Hi..Please tell me when calculating NPV how will I know whether to use annuity table or NPv for the cost? What hint will be there in the question? I’m much confused please tell me. Thanks

The nominal annual interest rate is the actual rate of interest per annum, taking into account the effect of compounding.

So if, for example, interest is charged at the rate of 5% every six months, then the nominal interest rate (the actual rate per year) is (1.05 x 1.05) – 1 = 0.1025 (or 10.25%)

For the payback period we are seeing how many years it will take to get back the original investment of 75000. After 2 years we have got a total of 50000 (20000 + 30000). So we need another 25000 (75000 – 50000). In the third year we get 50000 and so we will get 25000 in half the year. So total is 2.5 years.

@matubes, its simple click on the bare ,but there is a thing which is necessary is adobe acrobat reader must instal on your computer for opening these notes

Farzana sultana says

I just love ur lecture.its soooooooooo helpful.i think I start understanding many things which first I was trying to guess. thank u for this great support.i have a question always I got confused when to use which table? my exam is this week.i hv asked some question which I have not got answer yet.so plz help me.thank u.

John Moffat says

Have you watched the main lecture on investment appraisal?

The present value factors are for discounting individual cash flows, the annuity tables are for discounting an equal cash flow that occurs for several years.

As I have said before, this is not the place to ask questions – it is forcimmentingon lectures. I only guarantee to answer questions in the Ask the Tutor forum – it is just not possible for me to read throught every comment on every lecture for five different examinations!

Farzana sultana says

Sir,i hv asked question in the ask the tutor there yesterday.but I hv not got answer.thats y I thought to ask u here as I told u my exam is this week.so I need to clear all my confusion.sorry if I made mistake.

John Moffat says

I have answered all questions in the ask the tutor forum. We cannot answer immediately – we have to sleep and work – but we try to answer within 24 hours

Morganne says

Please can u assist me on this question.

An investment has the following cash inflows and cash outflows:

TIME CASH FLOW PER ANNUM

0 (20,000)

1-4 3000

5-8 7000

10 (10,000)

What is the net present value of the investment at a discount rate of 8 %?

John Moffat says

For the flow from 1-4, you simply multiply by the 4 year annuity discount factor at 8%.

For the flow from 5 to 8, you need to subtract the 4 year annuity factor from the 8 year annuity factor – this will give you the factor for 5-8.

For the 10,000 in 10 years time, you multiply by the ordinary 10 year discount factor.

(You might find it more useful to watch the full lectures on this topic rather than the revision lectures 馃檪

Also, please in future ask this sort of question in the Paper F2 Ask the ACCA Tutor Forum.)

Erica says

Sir, I have a difficulty in solving this question : –

The following information relates to a two-year project.

Initial investment $1 mil

Cash inflow Year 1 $750,000

Cash inflow Year 2 $500,000

Cost of capital Year 1 is 10%

Cost of capital Year 2 is 15%

What is the net present value of the project (to the nearest $500)?

(The answer is $77,000)

Erica says

Please Sir.. i do not know how to work this question out in proper steps. Oh and by the way, I got this question from BPP. I look forward for your reply.

John Moffat says

I am surprised that BPP do not show workings for the answer!

All you need do is this:

For the inflow at time 1, multiply the cash flow by the 1 year discount factor at 10%

For the cash flow at time 2, multiply by the 1 year discount factor at 10% and then multiply by the 1 year discount factor at 15%. (This discounts 1 year at 10% and 1 year at 15%)

Hope that helps 馃檪

Erica says

Why do you times the Year 2 with two cost of capitals (10% & 15%)??

Why can’t it just times with 15% as it mentions there cost of capital for Year 2?

John Moffat says

Because the cost of capital is 10% for one year and 15% for the other year.

Discounting at 15% for 2 years would only be correct if the cost of capital was 15% in both years.

It might help you to watch my free lectures on discounting.

Thwat02 says

How to calculate please explain.

John Moffat says

My first reply explains how to calculate.

caleb nyani says

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Amna Zaman says

Hi..Please tell me when calculating NPV how will I know whether to use annuity table or NPv for the cost? What hint will be there in the question? I’m much confused please tell me. Thanks

John Moffat says

For individual flows use the present value tables. When there is an equal cash flow each year, then use the annuity table.

(This is one of the revision lectures – have you watched the main lectures on this topic?)

Shehvar says

Thank you soooooooooo much sir. May I ask numeric Q to you related to other topics of F2? thank you once again…….

John Moffat says

No problem (but ask in the ‘ask the tutor’ forum.

Shehvar says

sir please tell me about the nominal interest or it is same like simple interest? i am in trouble please help me out

.

John Moffat says

The nominal annual interest rate is the actual rate of interest per annum, taking into account the effect of compounding.

So if, for example, interest is charged at the rate of 5% every six months, then the nominal interest rate (the actual rate per year) is (1.05 x 1.05) – 1 = 0.1025 (or 10.25%)

Shehvar says

thank you so much for such a superb notes. please tell me what is nominal interest?

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sunshine2 says

Excellent lecture – thank you so much!!

angelang says

why they use 2+ 25/50? 2 , 25, 50 come from where?

John Moffat says

@angelang, The lecture does explain it!

For the payback period we are seeing how many years it will take to get back the original investment of 75000. After 2 years we have got a total of 50000 (20000 + 30000). So we need another 25000 (75000 – 50000). In the third year we get 50000 and so we will get 25000 in half the year. So total is 2.5 years.

jefta says

is it possible to view this lectures on my phone, and i cant download the notes its blank after download. Help…

admin says

@jefta, yes lecture should play on your phone

use adobe reader X to open the file

DA CEILSO says

this lectures is very surperb

gincru says

thank you for you help it is going to help me pass tom.

zengyuxian says

reply

matubes says

i am unable to download this revision notes

naveedawan says

@matubes, its simple click on the bare ,but there is a thing which is necessary is adobe acrobat reader must instal on your computer for opening these notes