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What if we calculate the profit like this: 6,000,000 pounds x 0.02 x (6/12) = 60,000
Logic: We bought the futures for the same amount of loan then multiply it with profit and as the profit is yearly so we multiply it with (6/12) as the loan is for 6 months and so the profit should match the additional expense of interest of 6 months.
Does this makes sense?
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John moffat – the same tutor who replies on the ask the tutor forums
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