• Profile photo of John Moffat says

        For question 8:

        We know that the variance is 1250, and because it is the expenditure variance, this is the difference between the actual and the budget fixed overheads.
        We also know that the actual is 2% below budget, and so the variance (or difference) is 2% of the budget figure.
        Since we know that the variance is 1250, this must be 2% of the budget amount. So….we can calculate the budget amount (1250/2%) and the actual expenditure will be 1250 lower than this budget figure.

        For question 9:

        We calculate the labour efficiency variance by comparing the actual hours (27,000) with the standard hours for the actual production (29880) and then we cost out the difference at the standard cost per hour (of $8.50).

    • Profile photo of John Moffat says

      Capacity variance relates to fixed overheads. If there is more labour available than budgeted then it is possible to produce more units, and this gives rise to a fixed overhead variance if we are using absorption costing.

      It is different from the idle time variance which related purely to the labour.

      Capacity variance is not a labour variance.

  1. avatar says

    sir z topic is better explained however there is some doubt on figures as we don’t have question in front of us so it is not clearly understandable sir!!!so please if we could be given questions except on material n labour which is given!!!

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