For questions like 3d, do we get any marks for defining invoice discounting and factoring? I always see definitions written in the model answers, but the question does not ask for them.

I think you mean question 3, part (c), and in this case you will certainly get marks for explaining (only briefly since there are not so many marks) what invoice discounting and factoring mean (and you should explain what they mean). To get full marks you must also say how they aid the management of receivables.

Respected Sir I really have issues in attempting the theory part of F9. Can you suggest few useful techniques to overcome this deficiency? Like in 7 to 10 marks theory questions how many points are we suppose to write and explain.

There is no set rule, but unless the question specifies how many points they want you to make then you should aim to make one point per mark. (So for 10 marks, you should be aiming to make 10 points). However, again, this is not a fixed rule – if you look at the marking schemes (at the end of the examiners answers) you can see how many marks are given for each point.

Given the way that the format of the exam has changed (with Section A being MCQ’s and Section B being shorter questions than before), it is less likely that you will have written parts of questions that are worth as many as 10 marks.

Sir, why should current average payables be calculated as the amount to be paid is already known, which is, $456,000? or by doing this calculation, are we trying to find the amount to be paid in 60 days time?

Have you watched the lectures on working capital??

How on earth can the amount owing be 456,000? That is the annual expenditure and to be owing 456,000 would mean that we had paid nothing at all during the year!! We buy on 60 days credit and so at any point in time, 60 days worth of purchases are owing.

You really should watch the lectures on this – I cannot type out the whole lecture here.

We are always trying to add more lectures etc., but given that we are providing this free of charge how quickly we are able to do it has always to depend on the time and the finance available.

Because there is a 1% discount (which leaves 99%). To be honest it doesn’t matter whether you subtract the 1% or not – the examiner allows it both ways (and the difference it makes is only tiny anyway).

Reducing payables means paying sooner. If you pay sooner then you have less cash in the bank (and therefore lose interest) or it means you increase your overdraft (and therefore pay more interest).

jwb1996 says

Hello John, is there any way to access the exam paper for this please? The link at the top doesn’t work. Thank you 馃檪

John Moffat says

You might find it by searching on Google. Otherwise it will likely be in your Revision Kit.

onnyick says

For questions like 3d, do we get any marks for defining invoice discounting and factoring? I always see definitions written in the model answers, but the question does not ask for them.

John Moffat says

For 3 (d) – no!

I think you mean question 3, part (c), and in this case you will certainly get marks for explaining (only briefly since there are not so many marks) what invoice discounting and factoring mean (and you should explain what they mean). To get full marks you must also say how they aid the management of receivables.

onnyick says

Ok, thanks for the guidance.

Ummara says

Respected Sir

I really have issues in attempting the theory part of F9. Can you suggest few useful techniques to overcome this deficiency? Like in 7 to 10 marks theory questions how many points are we suppose to write and explain.

Thankyou.

John Moffat says

There is no set rule, but unless the question specifies how many points they want you to make then you should aim to make one point per mark. (So for 10 marks, you should be aiming to make 10 points).

However, again, this is not a fixed rule – if you look at the marking schemes (at the end of the examiners answers) you can see how many marks are given for each point.

Given the way that the format of the exam has changed (with Section A being MCQ’s and Section B being shorter questions than before), it is less likely that you will have written parts of questions that are worth as many as 10 marks.

Ummara says

Thankyou so much Sir 馃檪

Stay blessed.

anonymous says

Sir, why should current average payables be calculated as the amount to be paid is already known, which is, $456,000? or by doing this calculation, are we trying to find the amount to be paid in 60 days time?

John Moffat says

Have you watched the lectures on working capital??

How on earth can the amount owing be 456,000? That is the annual expenditure and to be owing 456,000 would mean that we had paid nothing at all during the year!!

We buy on 60 days credit and so at any point in time, 60 days worth of purchases are owing.

You really should watch the lectures on this – I cannot type out the whole lecture here.

anonymous says

Ok. Thank you.

ayeodele says

kindly upload more lecture on Paper F9,F8 AND F5 THANK

John Moffat says

Exactly which extra lectures are you wanting?

We are always trying to add more lectures etc., but given that we are providing this free of charge how quickly we are able to do it has always to depend on the time and the finance available.

ahmed says

Hi John, why do you take the 99% out of the $1 in the new average payable calculation?

John Moffat says

Because there is a 1% discount (which leaves 99%).

To be honest it doesn’t matter whether you subtract the 1% or not – the examiner allows it both ways (and the difference it makes is only tiny anyway).

jing says

Got it! Thank you for replying on Sat!!!

John Moffat says

Great 馃檪

John Moffat says

Reducing payables means paying sooner.

If you pay sooner then you have less cash in the bank (and therefore lose interest) or it means you increase your overdraft (and therefore pay more interest).

In either case you have the interest cost.

jing says

Hi John,

I guess my brain is not functioning probably….for Q3 (b), why reducing payable means increasing interest cost? Many thanks, Jing